Question about Past tense verbs
Printed From: IslamiCity.com
Category: Culture & Community
Forum Name: Arabic Language
Forum Discription: This forum is dedicated for Arabic language learner. Member who master in Arabic can help others who want to learn Arabic.
Printed Date: 26 April 2015 at 10:46pm
Topic: Question about Past tense verbs
Posted By: QRASoldier
Subject: Question about Past tense verbs
Date Posted: 01 January 2012 at 6:24pm
I was taught that all Arabic verbs can be traced back to their 3-letter roots: فَعَلَ. We were taught that each letter (Faa, Ain, Laa) is called Faa/Ain/Laam Kaleemah or 1st/2nd/3rd Radical (western style), respectively. But there was one thing that I was confused with:
My Ustadh mentioned that the Faa Kaleemah and Laam Kaleemah ALWAYS stay as /fatha/ and don't change their vowel signs. However, when you conjugate a past tense verb to indicate that the doer of action is "more than 2 men", the third radical gets a dhammah sign on top of it. This contradicts what my teacher told me. Does his rule only apply to the masculine, singular verb scenario?
Posted By: Full of Hopes
Date Posted: 25 January 2012 at 8:32am
Yes its because of the waw that u add to the verb n past to make it plural.
And whoever seeks a religion other than Islām, it will never be accepted of him, and in the Hereafter he will be one of the losers(3:85)