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myahya
Senior Member
Joined: 06 February 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 222 |
Posted: 02 March 2009 at 12:36am |
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Chrysalis: Ridiculous. There is a difference b/w people who surrounded the
Prophet physically, and those that were his circle of trust. I was clearly
referring to the sahaba he trusted, and loved. And it is those sahaba that
we take religion from. Another example: For everyone who has studied Islamic history it is more
than Mutevater and there is no doubt that the prophet used to say Fatima (sa)
is part of him and whoever makes her angry makes the prophet angry and whoever
hurts her hurts the prophet (sawa). On the other hand, it is also more than
Mutevater that after the death of the prophet (sawa) Fatima (sa) was angry with
Abu Bakr and was alive only 6 months after the prophet and never spoke to Abu
Bakr till she died. One can never say that Mohammad (sawa) loves all companions
if they honestly study what has happened. Also, do not think that you are taking your religion from original
companions. Who has taught you Sahih Bukhari is the most authentic hadith book?
Those sahabah or prone Imams ages after the prophet?!!! Just to let you know, the author of Sahih Bukhari was living after 9 or
10 infallible Imams of 12. So the 12 imams that will eventually come into this world, as
ordinary human biengs, are better Muslims than the Prophet's wives and his
trusted companions? Your loyalty and trust is misplaced my friend, grossly. Ordinary human beings? All of them are infallible human beings not
ordinary. Furthermore, they have already come. The first three of them are
Ali(as), Hasan(as) and Husain(as). The rest are from progeny of Husain (as).
All of them are already born and the last one is Mahdi (as) who is alive, who
will eventually come and Isa Massih (as) will also come with him and pray
behind him. The misplacement here is that you take your religion from fallible people
and suppose infallible guiders as ordinary people ignoring them. This is the
gross misplacement Chrysalis. We do not love anyone that Prophet Muhammad never loved. And we
love everyone whom he loved (Abu Bakr, Umar, Usman, Ali, Fatima, Aisha, Hassan,
Hussain (R.A) inclusive) There is a difference b/w these Sahaba, and just
any random bedoiun/nonmuslim the Prophet may have seen/met/been with (like u
suggest) From the ones you proposed I only love Ali(as), Fatima(as), Hassan(as)
and Hussain(as) and the rest is the 9 Imams from Hussain (as) I talked about.
They are not random. Mohammad (sawa) has mentioned all of them till Mahdi (as)
and has said that Mahdi (as) is from his line and among his progeny. There has
not been any randomness from the first day. This is a typical response the Shia give, when we talk about
Prophet Muhammad's Companions and his wives. Apparently, according to you guys,
they are to be equated with Munafiqeen? Aazubillah. Actually this was not what I talked about in my last post. I mentioned
the example of Munafighin as a support of my talk to stress that physical being
with the prophet does not necessitate righteousness. In fact, I do not need to
judge who was a Monafigh and who was not. What I know for sure is that among
wives none of them was infallible and was said by the prophet to be followed
and unfortunately some of the companions made great mistakes and only those of
them who never ignored or forgot the words and wills of Mohammad (sawa)
regarding AhlulBayt and Ali (as) stayed non-deviated. You are suggesting just like Asda, that Prophet Muhamamd
nauzubillah had bad judgement, and he married women that were nauzubillah bad
muslims, and Allah let him make them Umhat-ul-Momineen. I am not suggesting what you said. The prophet Mohammad (sawa) in his
recitation, saying, and acting completed whatever people had to know.
Therefore, there is no room to escape from responsibility. Judgment will be
done on the Day of Judgment by Allah (SWT).
Where the prophet said that we should follow and take our religion from
his wives? Did or did not Prophet Muhamamd have good judgement of people? As I said the prophet completed what he was supposed to complete by
Allah’s will. Was he not infallible? If he was, then why would he make an error
in judging not only one, but several of his beloved companions? The prophet was infallible and never made any error. He gave the
absolute right criteria for after himself. One who does not deceive him/herself
would understand the truth. He perfectly introduced infallible Ahlul-Bayt to
people. He did not need to judge the Ummah and companions one by one nor did
Allah tell him to do so otherwise it would be the Day of Judgment not the
freewill and test in this world. Instead of that, Allah (SWT) ordered him to
make people know the real guiders for after him and he did it completely. That
was what people need to know and he completed it. Was not Allah responsible in correcting Prophet Muhammad if he
nazubillah committed a mistake? As I said the prophet exactly did what Allah wanted him to do without
one moment of deviation. No body influenced the prophet and no body could stop him from what
Allah wanted him to do and say. Trust in Allah and His judgement, and His Prophet's judgement, and
accept the facts. . . |
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myahya
Senior Member
Joined: 06 February 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 222 |
Posted: 02 March 2009 at 12:38am |
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Usmani: few yours matter you have provided the sources of these
are not famous and unknown to me. Although famousness can not necessarily mean righteousness, but the
references that I provided in this thread which reported that wives are
excluded are the following: Sahih Al-Tirmidhi, al-Mustadrak, by al-Hakim, Usdul Ghabah, by Ibn al-Athir, Tafsir al-Durr al-Manthoor, by al-Suyuti, Tafsir al-Tabari A reader with basic knowledge would know whether the above references
are famous or not. The other references (which say that Ali, Fatima, Hasan, and Hussain
(as) are the meaning of the purification verse) do not consider wives included
and they are from Sahih Muslim, Tirmidhi and so on. how do you explain that ahle bayt has two meanings one is with the
wife and other without wife? Please provide the support of Arabic grammar in
yours reply. Support of Arabic grammar can be obviously found in the purification
verse. It can never mean anything other than infallibility. No honest Arabic
linguist can carry out legal purification from its meaning nor can an intellect
confirm any sign of legal purification in this verse unless those who want to
deceive themselves. In this matter, Shall I provide support of Arabic grammar better than
what Mohammad (sawa) said? Read the following: The Messenger of Allah recited "Verily Allah intends to keep off
from you every kind of uncleanness O' People of the House (Ahlul-Bayt), and
purify you a perfect purification". (Quran, the last sentence of Verse 33:33)
and then the Messenger of Allah said: "Thus Me and my Ahlul-Bayt are
clear from sins." Sahih al-Tirmidhi Tafsir al-Durr al-Manthoor, by Jalaluddin al-Suyuti, under the
commentary of Verse 33:33 of Quran Sahih Bukhari is the most authentic ahadith book only. The authenticity of a hadith can be understood only from detail
historical study through the chain of the narrators of that hadith and the fact
that whether the hadith is in line with Quran or not to get sure that the
hadith is word of an infallible. In this regard all ahadith are potentially
questionable. Do not make an exception for yourself. Bukhari was a Muslim
scholar who was a fallible person and collected some ahadith in a book about
200 years after the prophet (sawa), nothing more. Further more for the infallibility of Prophet(pbuh) there could be
lots of verses of Quran be seen which are directly or indirectly showing the
infallibility. Yes, but you claim that infallibility must be only the hallmark of a
prophet. How do you support this claim? Could you bring a single verse where it is showing the
infallibility of four of ahle bayt as you claimed,apart from 33:33 where Allah
talking to the wives(Umahatul Momaneen). I brought one (the last part of 33:33). Our argumentation is written in
this thread and everyone can read it and ponder if they would like to. If the Prophet(pbuh) did not told us about four are also ahle
bayt no one can know it from Quran. |
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Usmani
Male Islam Senior Member
Joined: 07 September 2006 Location: Pakistan Online Status: Offline Posts: 142 |
Posted: 04 March 2009 at 5:04am |
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Myahya Quote:-The other references (which say that Ali, Fatima, Hasan, and Hussain (as) are the meaning of the purification verse) do not consider wives included and they are from Sahih Muslim, Tirmidhi and so on. >>>I have posted a bukhari hadith before now there is one from muslim. It is narrated in Sahih Muslim by Zayd ibn Arqam (رضّى الله عنه) that the Prophet’s wives are part of the Ahlel Bayt. In Sahih Muslim (Book 31, Chapter 4, Hadith-5920) I hope you know the status of sahih bukhari and sahih muslim for a sunni.Both are saying the same thing.As far as the cloak hadith of sahih muslim and termidhi, you are taking some meaning which not there at all,(that the wives are not included) and not realizing yours mistake. Quote:-First, literally it is not referring to this verse of Quran. Second, the purification verse is talking about absolute and complete purification which is called infallibility and from Quran we know that the wives do not have such purification. >>>If he (pbuh) is not referring the verse so what, it is good enough to know that Prophet called them ahle bayt. Quote: Second, the purification verse is talking about absolute and complete purification which is called infallibility. >>>Any prove of it please share with us. I said:-how do you explain that ahle bayt has two meanings one is with the wife and other without wife? Please provide the support of Arabic grammar in yours reply. You said:-Support of Arabic grammar can be obviously found in the purification verse. It can never mean anything other than infallibility >>>I have read all of your reply but found no answer of a simple question.Ponder please. Quote:-The authenticity of a hadith can be understood only from detail historical study through the chain of the narrators of that hadith and the fact that whether the hadith is in line with Quran or not to get sure that the hadith is word of an infallible. In this regard all ahadith are potentially questionable. Do not make an exception for yourself. Bukhari was a Muslim scholar who was a fallible person and collected some ahadith in a book about 200 years after the prophet (sawa), nothing more. So What about Quran, it is also transmitted to us by fallible people like ahadith and not through infallible.The initial compiling of Quran carried out by Hazrat Abu bakr time(RA) on the advised by Hazrat Umer(RA). Quote:-Yes, but you claim that infallibility must be only the hallmark of a prophet. How do you support this claim? Lots of verses of Quran and ahdith are there which shows that Prophet(pbuh) was infallible. And he (the Prophet (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam) does not speak out of his own desire. It is not but a revelation revealed (to him). (53:3-4) Say: This is my way. I call to Allâh with sure knowledge, I and whoever follows me. (12:108) I said:-Could you bring a single verse where it is showing the infallibility of four of ahle bayt as you claimed,apart from 33:33 where Allah talking to the wives(Umahatul Momaneen). You said:-I brought one (the last part of 33:33). Our argumentation is written in this thread and everyone can read it and ponder if they would like to. >>>So you don’t have single verse.As far as the last part of 33:33,remember that the next verse 33:34 start with “and” it shows the continuity from the previous verse’s last part as you referred, further more it is also address to the wives(Allah bless them all) as well,ponder please. Quote:-That is the same for many other things in Quran. For example, if the prophet had not told us and shown us how to pray we couldn’t understand it from Quran. That is why I believe that only-Quran Muslims are greatly deviated. >>>I am fully agreed with you on that.But I don’t see much difference between only Quran muslims and shite muslim honestly.Shite Muslims also did not follow most of the ahadith even which are not against the Quran as well.You have yours reasons and they have their reasons.See what you have said for bukhari. Bukhari was a Muslim scholar who was a fallible person and collected some ahadith in a book about 200 years after the prophet (sawa), nothing more. >>>I have seen them giving almost the same remarks about bukhari. |
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Engage your self in good deeds,otherswise yours nafs will engage you in bad deeds
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myahya
Senior Member
Joined: 06 February 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 222 |
Posted: 09 March 2009 at 3:53am |
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It
is narrated in Sahih Muslim by Zayd ibn Arqam From Zayd ibn Arqam in
Sahih Muslim there is also one hadith in which he says wives are not included. What do you mean? Is this another hadith in the same book, Sahih
Muslim saying the reverse?!! As
far as the cloak hadith of sahih muslim and termidhi, you are taking some
meaning which not there at all Which of the cloak ahadith
is including wives? You are taking some meaning which is not there simply
because you pre-assume that wives must be already included in the meaning of
that verse of Quran without any reasonable justification and without pondering
that such pre-assumption contradicts Quran and Sunnah because the meaning of purification
verse is infallibility. it
is good enough to know that Prophet called them ahle bayt. It is good to know that if
we take the meaning of ahle bayt in this hadith the same as the meaning of it
in purification verse, then it contradicts Quran, and many other ahadith from
sahih Muslim, Thirmidhi, and so on. Therefore, the meaning of ahle bayt (if it
is literally mentioned in Arabic version of hadith) is not the same as its
meaning in purification verse if the hadith is authentic. You can not scarify
everything even Quran and all other ahadith in Islam for the sake of Sahih
Bukhari. Any
prove of it please share with us. So far I have presented my
proofs. For instance, in my last post, I brought its meaning by clear words of
Mohammad (sawa) from Sahih Thirmidhi and Tafsir Dorrol Mansur Syuti. You should provide a proof if
it is legal purification. So
What about Quran, it is also transmitted to us by fallible people like ahadith
and not through infallible.The initial compiling of Quran carried out by Hazrat
Abu bakr time(RA) on the advised by Hazrat Umer(RA). I do not believe so. Quran
was written at the time of the prophet and was collected by the prophet himself
at the time of revelation. No intellect can accept that the prophet spent years
leading Muslims and letting them write and memorize the verses of Quran but did
never collect them till his death. Lots
of verses of Quran and ahdith are there which shows that Prophet(pbuh) was
infallible. Infallibility is not ONLY
for prophet so that you can never say anyone who is not a prophet should
necessarily be fallible. The reverse, however, can be proved from Quran. remember
that the next verse 33:34 start with “and” it shows the continuity from the
previous verse’s last part as you referred, further more it is also address to
the wives(Allah bless them all) as well,ponder please. I have talked about the
relation between 33:34 and last part of 33:33. It is obvious. Last part of
33:33 is revealed in the house of the wives and recited to them. In 33:34 it is
telling wives to keep in mind what is recited to them in their house. That is
why it is started with “and”. But
I don’t see much difference between only Quran muslims and shite muslim
honestly.Shite Muslims also did not follow most of the ahadith even which are
not against the Quran as well.You have yours reasons and they have their
reasons.See what you have said for bukhari. Edited by myahya - 09 March 2009 at 3:57am |
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Usmani
Male Islam Senior Member
Joined: 07 September 2006 Location: Pakistan Online Status: Offline Posts: 142 |
Posted: 11 March 2009 at 10:13pm |
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myahaya,
Quote:-It is good to know that if we take the meaning of ahle bayt in this hadith the same as the meaning of it in purification verse, then it contradicts Quran, and many other ahadith from sahih Muslim, Thirmidhi, and so on. Therefore, the meaning of ahle bayt (if it is literally mentioned in Arabic version of hadith) is not the same as its meaning in purification verse if the hadith is authentic. You can not scarify everything even Quran and all other ahadith in Islam for the sake of Sahih Bukhari. >>>You are saying this because yours understanding is that the ahle bayt are infallible, otherwise there is nothing wrong in this hadith.One mistake lead to many other mistakes. You need to do a thorough study of the yours understanding of infallibility of Ahle bayt.Mufti Shafi has explained it in his Ahkam ul Quran. |
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Engage your self in good deeds,otherswise yours nafs will engage you in bad deeds
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Fatah-Momin
Senior Member
Joined: 11 May 2005 Online Status: Offline Posts: 156 |
Posted: 11 June 2009 at 9:23pm |
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My Questions to Shia:
1. Was Aya 33:33 revealed before or after Hadith of Blanket? 2: Were Shia imams purified at birth or after this aya was revealed? I hope some educated Shia member will nswer these questions. |
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myahya
Senior Member
Joined: 06 February 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 222 |
Posted: 26 August 2009 at 6:39am |
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Was Aya 33:33 revealed before or after Hadith of Blanket? The Hadith is
performed upon the revelation of 33:33. Were Shia imams purified at birth or after this aya was revealed? |
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Moses
Male Groupie
Joined: 02 September 2009 Location: Australia Online Status: Offline Posts: 65 |
Posted: 02 September 2009 at 10:50am |
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Originally posted by Ya Sayedi
Is anybody hate of him?!! how you can approve that the Universe created for him?!!!!! God says himself?! where ?
............ I wonder y many people hate /dislike our Prophet MUHAMMED(Sallau-aliya-wali-wasalm) where infact this entire Universe was created for him.
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