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Topic: 1o1 Biblical Contradictions |
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Shibboleth
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Joined: 06 August 2009 Online Status: Offline Posts: 281 |
![]() Posted: 19 October 2010 at 9:42am |
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Okay, but I’m referring to the true written text not interpretations and meanings. Because If Allah failed to protect and guard his 1st, 2nd n’3rd revelation like he said he would why is he now able to protect this so called final revelation or the next revelation? Everyone is saying they have faith in Allah but yet everyone in doubting the integrity of Allah’s Revelations because of the people, shame on you honoring God with only lip service!
If you say the previous revelations have been altered you NOW have the task of providing the true text in order to prove what exactly has been changed, can you do that? I’ve asked for that Proof since I started on this forum no one has yet provided any proof of that just hot air.
You say the previous revelations have been corrupted. Still, the Quran commands Muslims to believe in the previous Revelations, very strange in deed. 'We believe in God, and what has been revealed to thee, and what was revealed to Abraham, and Ishmael, and Isaac, and Jacob, and the tribes, and what was given to Moses, and Jesus, and the prophets from their Lord,- we will make no distinction between any of them,- and we are unto Him resigned. Q3:84 Would Muhammad really believe this if they were corrupted when he received them?
These previous Revelations include the following: We did reveal the Torah (Tawrat), wherein is guidance and a light ... Q5:44 - Can Muhammad really be guided when something is corrupt? And already have we written in the Psalms (Zabur) after the reminder that the earth shall my righteous servants inherit.' Q21:105 - But, how could we trust that if it is corrupted? Subsequent to them, we sent Jesus, the son of Mary, confirming the previous scripture, the Torah. We gave him the Gospel (Injil), containing guidance and light, and confirming the previous scriptures, the Torah, and augmenting its guidance and light, and to enlighten the righteous. Q5:46 – Although corrupted as YOU say, why didn’t Jesus say they were corrupted instead of directing us to these Revelations? So this is what I have gathered: 1. The Quran is preserved. 2. God’s Revelations which preceded the Quran include the Torah, the Psalms, and the Gospel. These Books make up a large portion of the Holy Bible. 3. The Quran, the Torah, the Psalms, and the Gospel are all the Word of Allah. 4. God's Word does not change. 5. The revelations that came before the Quran have become corrupted. 6. Although Muslims should believe that these previous Books are the genuine Revelations from God, they have to trust only the Quran as the final revelation and the only one that is preserved. A. The Quran, the Torah, the Psalms and the Gospel are all Allah’s Word. B. The current Torah, Psalms and Gospel are corrupted. C. The final word of Allah, the Quran is preserved. Muslims are saying some of Allah’s words are corrupted. But the Quran is also Allah’s word, a BIG dilemma you have on your hand! You are also saying some of Allah’s words are preserved, because the Torah, Psalms and Gospel are Allah’s words. An even BIGGER dilemma! Muslims are saying some of Allah’s words are corrupted and some are preserved. You stand on shaky ground because now you pick and choose what’s right and what is wrong to fit what is in as you say the “final” Revelation, but then again who knows according to your reasoning. God’s word cannot be both right and wrong; it’s either one or the other. Any time you use the Bible to discuss the Prophet(s) or the ‘book’ you will always pull the rug out from under your feet. |
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“If you doubt what we have revealed to you, ask those who have read the Scriptures before you.” (Sura 10, Yunis [Jonah], verse 94) & (Surah Al ‘Imran: 84-85)
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Friendship
Senior Member
Joined: 24 August 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 872 |
![]() Posted: 19 October 2010 at 1:42pm |
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Assalamu alaika Shibboleth.
Referring to your comments, the truth is this: The adulteration the Muslims referred to of the previous Scriptures is not what actually the Qur'an and Muhammad explained. Those adulterations were straightened and explained to the Levi tribes in Madina. Remember that the Children of Israel referred to all died before Moses reached Moab according to Exodus and the holy Qur'an. Those under Joshua prospered and were obedient to Allah. The Bible explained the waxing and waning of their faith and their adventures. For example Allah told Muhammad what Jesus the son of Maryam told the Children of Israel saying, "And (remember) when Isa (Jesus) son of Maryam (Mary) said, "O Children of Israel! I am the Messenger of Allah unto you, confirming the Torah (Matthew 5) which came before me, and giving glad tidings of a Messenger to come after me (John xiv.16;xv.26;xvi.7) whose name shall be Ahmad. But when he (Ahmad) came to them with clear proofs, they said, "This is plain magic". Now the children of Israel referred to were the Levi tribes in Madina and not those in the time of Moses or before the Hijra. I hope this example will suffice. Friendship. Edited by Friendship - 19 October 2010 at 1:57pm |
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Shibboleth
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Joined: 06 August 2009 Online Status: Offline Posts: 281 |
![]() Posted: 20 October 2010 at 12:04pm |
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Originally posted by Friendship
Referring to your comments, the truth is this: The adulteration the Muslims referred to of the previous Scriptures is not what actually the Qur'an and Muhammad explained. Greetings Friendship Yes, I believe that the interpretation or meaning of the “Book” has been somewhat obscured by Jews, Christians and Muslims. Therefore, Is it safe to say then the written text of the Torah, Psalms and Gospel that Muhammad said he received were uncorrupted according to the verses from the Quran? I ask because it was posted on page 12 of this thread that “Allah has made a promise with the Qur'an unique from previous revelations and that is to guard it from such corruption. Allah had not guarded the Torah and the Injil in the same manner……...” Although the Quran makes no mention of Prophet Isaiah Muslims use his book to prophecy about Muhammad. Nonetheless, just as Muslims believe the Quran is preserved and cannot be altered, Jews and Christians believe the same when it comes to their Holy Scriptures.
Exodus 34:27: “And Jehovah went on to say to Moses: “Write down for yourself these words, because it is in accordance with these words that I do conclude a covenant with you and Israel.’”
Isaiah 40:8 - The green grass has dried up, the blossom has withered; but as for the word of our God, it will last to time indefinite. (Luke 24:27) And commencing at Moses and all the Prophets he interpreted to them things pertaining to himself in all the Scriptures. (Luke 24:44) He now said to them: “These are my words which I spoke to YOU while I was yet with YOU, that all the things written in the law of Moses and in the Prophets and Psalms about me must be fulfilled.” 2 Timothy 3:16, 17 - All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness… Revelation 1:1 - A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God gave him, to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place Then he said “At this stage in time, it is menial to seek guidance from the Torah and the Injil in the sence that it contains the mixture of truth and falsehood along with confusing contradiction, which are evidence of tampering.” Menial? Falsehoods? Whether that is true or not of what modern Muslims really believe doesn’t bother me but it questions the validity of Muhammad prophet hood if they do, here’s why – 3:84, 4:136 - Muslims should believe it. 3:3, 5:46 - It came from Jesus 9:111 - God's promises are in it 5:47 - We are to judge by it. 3:3, 5:46 - Guidance and light. 10:94 - Refer to it when in doubt. 4:162 - Those grounded in knowledge believe it. Found in Tirmidhi’s and Al-Bukhari’s Hadith: He then said, “Do you not have among you . . . Salman who was a believer in the two Books? Meaning the Injīl and the Qur’an. Tirmidhi translated it. |
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“If you doubt what we have revealed to you, ask those who have read the Scriptures before you.” (Sura 10, Yunis [Jonah], verse 94) & (Surah Al ‘Imran: 84-85)
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Mansoor_ali
Male Islam Senior Member
Joined: 25 September 2008 Location: Pakistan Online Status: Offline Posts: 581 |
![]() Posted: 20 October 2010 at 6:16pm |
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Originally posted by Shibboleth "The Quran is ... a confirmation of (revelations) that went before it". (S. Yi'inus 10:37). What the Quran confirms of the present day Bible we accept, what it does not, then we reject, this is what Allah means when he says the Quran confirms and verifies the Bible, the Quran confirms that which is true, and rejects that which is false. Ibn Kathir writes this concerning this verse:
(but it is a confirmation of (the revelation) which was before it,) Such as previous revelations and Books. The Qur'an confirms these books and is a witness to them. It shows the changes, perversions and corruption that have taken place within these Books.
Originally posted by honeto The Quran exactly states both facts, that those revelations, that are part of the Bible, were from God, and that they were altered by men. Eveyone is teling you simply that what you have as the Bible, did not exist as such.
Originally posted by Shibboleth He has spoken! You’re saying that the revelations that Muhammad received were already corrupted? Now, you sound just as contradictory as the rest. Let me show you why (2 Timothy 3:16) All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, "All scripture" donot mean "the whole Bible" because the whole Bible was not complete at the time of Paul.Many books of the New Testament section were written after Paul's death.For example;Revelation, John, 1 John ,2 John, 3 John.Obviously, Paul was not telling Timothy to hold on to the
above books which did not exist at the time.Click here to read more about 2 Tim 3:16
Originally posted by Shibboleth (Revelation 1:1) A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God gave him, to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place. And he sent forth his angel and presented [it] in signs through him to his slave John, Now my first question is who is the author of Book of Revelation?The author of book identifies himself as John(1:1,4,9; 22:8) but he never claims to be John the apostle. Several early church Father e.g Justin,Irenaeus,Terullian etc claim that he is John the apostle but at the same time other Fathers such as Denis of Alexandria,Eusebius of Caesarea,Cyril of Jerusalem etc denied it. Click here to read more about The Book Of Revelation So author is doubtful.
Originally posted by Shibboleth Although contradictory the Quran says "No change can there be in the words of Allah" (Sura 10:64) "There is none that can alter the words of Allah" (Sura 6:34) The context of “Words of God” in 10:64 Let us read the Surah 10:64 in its context.Surah 10:64 “for them are good tidings in the life of this world, and in the future too; there is no changing the words of God! That is the mighty happiness!” This verse has four parts: First part: “for them are good tidings in the life of this world” This is the promise of God! Second part: “and in the future too”. The promise of God is being extended to the future, the life to come. Third part: “there is no changing the words of God!” God assures man that He does not renege on his promise! Fourth part: “That is the mighty happiness!” How can one lift the phrase, “words of God”, clear out of middle of the verse and give it a meaning other than the “promise of God”? For context, please read a few verses before 10:64. They promise mankind that all deeds are being
recorded and that God will hold court on the Day of Judgment. Verse 10:55 has these exact words “Indeed, the promise of Allah is absolutely true!”and that is what is meant by the phrase “words of God” How can the phrase in verse 10:64, “the words of God”, be assigned any other meaning besides, “the promise of God”? Why would it refer to the “words” in the bible? The Context of “Words of God” in 6:34 Called liars too were apostles before thee; but they were patient of being called liars and of being hurt until our help came to them; for there is none to change the words of God - now has there come to thee the story of those He sent. The last messenger was being persecuted at that time. This verse advises him that messengers before him were also abused and called liars. Help of God arrives only after they have braved the initial persecution. This happens to be the established practice of God. None can change the destiny appointed by God (the words of God). Read a few verses before and after verse 6:34. No other interpretation is possible. There is no reason to think that the phrase “words of God” refers to the bible.
Originally posted by Shibboleth Did Allah gain more power now to stop this revelation of Muhammad to be altered since he could not stop it before with Moses and Jesus? My opinion: Some parts of Bible are reliable but mostly are not.It was a duty of keepers of Bible to protect it from corruption not God but when they tempered it then Allah replaced the abused and tempered [by human] product with far SUPERIOR [product] the Final Revelation *****THE NOBLE QUR'AAN***** Which by the way is another testament of God's existence that He not only can save His word, but again He can give mankind a chance to correct himself and follow his true word [The Noble Qur'aan] to be saved. Because God [Allah] is the Most Beneficent and Most Merciful. Because Quran is the final revelation(and for the whole mankind which was not a case with previous revelation) thats why Allah Almighty in the Noble Quran did promise that He will personally guard the Noble Quran from corruption. Allah knows best.
Originally posted by Shibboleth Why didn’t Jesus, Moses and other Prophets say they were corrupted before Islam’s prophets? Maybe Bahá’u’lláh, the latest of these Messengers, brought new spiritual and social teachings for your time. How absurd you sound! They did.Read Jeremiah 8:8 "How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' Click here to read: Jeremiah 8:8 proves Historical Corruption in the Bible - by John McCarthy. Got detailed archeological evidence. The Argument of Jeremiah 8:8 Still Standing! Further you have not original message of Jesus and Moses what you have is the mixture of word of God,word of Prophets,word of Historian. |
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Friendship
Senior Member
Joined: 24 August 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 872 |
![]() Posted: 21 October 2010 at 4:33am |
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Assalamau alaikum.
Shibboleth posted: 1. Yes, I believe that the interpretation or meaning of the “Book” has been somewhat obscured by Jews, Christians and Muslims. Therefore, Is it safe to say then the written text of the Torah, Psalms and Gospel that Muhammad said he received were uncorrupted according to the verses from the Quran? Response: That is the essence of what Allah instructed us and what He told us those with the True knowledge of Torah and Injil did when they heard recitation of what they knew as preserved in their discovered Torah and told in holy Qur'an, "And when they (who called themselves Christians) listen to what has been sent down to the Messenger (Muhamamd) you see their eyes overflowing with tears because of the truth they have recognized. They say: Our Lord! We believe, so write us down among the witnesses." 2. I ask because it was posted on page 12 of this thread that “Allah has made a promise with the Qur'an unique from previous revelations and that is to guard it from such corruption. Allah had not guarded the Torah and the Injil in the same manner……...” Response: I am sure it is apparent to us that the main problem the Muslim Umma is facing is lack of Central Authority i.e. the Khalifate. You and me cannot an International Conference to discuss about the Sunna and bring about peace and unity. Right from the very beginning, after Moses received the Torah on returning to his people and after seeing the atrocity they committed he threw it on the ground. Some of the Muslim (followers of Muhammad) commentators
of the Qur‘ān explained that when Prophet Mūsā threw down the Tables they broke
down into seven parts. The six parts containing the Tafsīl (detailed
elaborations or specific evidences) were raised to the Heavens leaving only one
part containing ‘hudan’ (the guidance) and Rahma (mercy of Allāh).
What happened or what became the fate of the Tafsīl raised to the Heavens is an
issue not raised by our predecessors. Examination of the Ten Commandments
reveals the nature of the Torah dealing with mainly morale issues and not the
rituals. The Law, “Do not worship any god besides me (Me)” I believed
has been explained in the Old Testament in such details that it becomes
imperative for any one studying the holy Qur‘ān to know full well what is in
the Old Testament. The lessons are clear, plain and detailed. You worship none
but Allāh. The Law, “Do not make idols that look like anything in the sky or
on earth or in the ocean under the earth”, has its Tafsīl in the Qur’ān and
the Sunna of the holy Prophet. Idol
worship was exemplified by the history of Prophet Ibrāhim (AS). I quite agree with you conclusion. It is baseless to delve in the past. What is important is to establish the Khalifate which no Muslim nation is interested. We cannot understand Islam without a Central Authority. Friendship. Edited by Friendship - 21 October 2010 at 4:35am |
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Shibboleth
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Joined: 06 August 2009 Online Status: Offline Posts: 281 |
![]() Posted: 21 October 2010 at 11:24am |
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Okay, all clear! Well explained. Now you see why it is logically and scripturally impossible for the Quran to be of divine origin, inspired of God. Logically - The Bible was already written and completed 600 yrs before Muhammad’s birth Scripturally - The Bible and Quran contradict each other on every minor and major event As you have just said “what the Quran confirms of the present day Bible we accept, what it does not, then we reject.” As I said “the Quran disagrees and contradicts itself, the Quran disagrees and contradicts the Torah, the Quran disagrees and contradicts the Psalms, the Quran disagrees and contradicts the Gospel, the Quran disagrees and contradicts Jesus and all the Prophets and might I now add the Quran disagrees and contradicts even your own Hadiths. As I’ve been saying the Quran is not from divine origin but from a fallen angel because it contradicts the creation of man, the universe, the Prophets and the very fundamental teachings of God, Jesus and the Bible the world’s oldest and preserved Holy Book man has ever known!! Allah is not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob but a god for Muslims. The Quran is not a book for all people but the first book for Muslims, that’s why it contradicts the Bible in everything, we all agree on that! Muhammad never spoke in the name of Moses God Yahweh (יהוה), but Muhammad’s god Allah. King James Exodus 6:3 And I used to appear to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as God Almighty, but as respects my name Jehovah I did not make myself known to them. Psalms 83:18 That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth
Geneses 22:14 And Abraham began to call the name of that place Je·ho′vah-ji′reh. This is why it is customarily said today: “In the mountain of Jehovah it will be provided. Exodus 17:15 And Moses proceeded to build an altar and to call its name Je·ho′vah-nis′si,
(John 14:6) Jesus said to him: “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. ♦ God rendered him to be in honor in this world and forever after and in the company of those nearest to God.—Āl ‘Imrān [3]:45. ♦ God caused Christ to die, raised him to life, and then lifted him up to Him.—Āl ‘Imrān [3]:55, NJD; Maryam [19]:33, NJD Greetings |
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“If you doubt what we have revealed to you, ask those who have read the Scriptures before you.” (Sura 10, Yunis [Jonah], verse 94) & (Surah Al ‘Imran: 84-85)
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honeto
Senior Member
Joined: 20 March 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 2340 |
![]() Posted: 21 October 2010 at 2:55pm |
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Originally posted by Shibboleth
He has spoken! You’re saying that the revelations that Muhammad received were already corrupted? Now, you sound just as contradictory as the rest. Let me show you why
Shibbo,
I don't assume you are blind, but you must be slow. Where did I say what you claim I said, can you find that in my response above?
Hasan
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39:64 Proclaim: Is it some one other than God that you order me to worship, O you ignorant ones?"
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Mansoor_ali
Male Islam Senior Member
Joined: 25 September 2008 Location: Pakistan Online Status: Offline Posts: 581 |
![]() Posted: 22 October 2010 at 10:35am |
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Originally posted by Shibboleth Okay, all clear! Well explained. Now you see why it is logically and scripturally impossible for the Quran to be of divine origin, inspired of God. Logically - The Bible was already written and completed 600 yrs before Muhammad’s birth If this is a case then Hinduism is also a religion of true God because Hinduism and their sacred scriptures are older than Bible.
Originally posted by Shibboleth Scripturally - The Bible and Quran contradict each other on every minor and major event Yes i agree that there are some contradiction between Bible and Quran.But it doesnot mean that Quran and Bible contradict each other on every minor and major event.I can show you some similarities.
Originally posted by Shibboleth As I said “the Quran disagrees and contradicts itself, Quran never contradict itself and you are failed to show me any contardiction in the Quran.
Originally posted by Shibboleth the Quran disagrees and contradicts the Torah, the Quran disagrees and contradicts the Psalms, the Quran disagrees and contradicts the Gospel, the Quran disagrees and contradicts Jesus and all the Prophets and might I now add the Quran disagrees and contradicts even your own Hadiths. If any Hadith contradict with Quran then it is not accepted by muslim because Quran is ultimate authority.But there are few Hadiths which contradict with it.There are various and various Hadiths which are confirmed by Quran itself. |
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