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Shibboleth
 
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bullet Posted: 19 April 2010 at 4:11pm
Muslim tradition relates that while he was there in a cave, an angel, later identified as Gabriel, commanded him to recite in the name of Allāh. Muḥammad failed to respond, so the angel ‘caught him forcefully and pressed him so hard that he could not bear it anymore.’ Then the angel repeated the command. Again, Muḥammad failed to react, so the angel ‘choked him’ again. This occurred three times before Muḥammad started to recite what came to be viewed as the first of a series of revelations that constitute the Qur’ān. Another tradition relates that divine inspiration was revealed to Muḥammad like the ringing of a bell.—The Book of Revelation from Ṣaḥīḥ Al-Bukhārī.

Which one was it? But either way, he was forced to recite something he himself didn't believe. I'm really truly sorry for you, but many many people find this account just to hard to believe and accept, it goes far beyond the scriptures and Prophet hood from the Almighty God.
 
Greetings



Edited by Shibboleth - 19 April 2010 at 4:18pm
“If you doubt what we have revealed to you, ask those who have read the Scriptures before you.” (Sura 10, Yunis [Jonah], verse 94) & (Surah Al ‘Imran: 84-85)
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truthnowcome
 
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bullet Posted: 20 April 2010 at 12:06am

Originally posted by JOUBERAR

Originally posted by truthnowcome

Nice try Jouberer, you got help from Mike! Even he can help you here! Let me see if you can prove your case by establishing “FACT”.

The so cal original bible the have today is in Greek, they don’t have the original in Aramaic or Hebrew which is the language it suppose to be in since that was the language the disciples uses. Let’s used some logic here, again, your name is JUOBERER (English); if you go to an Arabic speaking country or any foreign country that speak another language than yours, what name you think they will call you? By translating your name in to Arabic or any foreign name or they will call you by your same name, the original pronunciation “JOUBERER”? It would be your own name, JOUBERER! They might spell it a little different but the “pronunciation” would be the same. Example: JOBERER, JUBERER, JUBBERER, JUOBERRER and so on.

 

Here is the catch: the so call original Greek bible mentioned the Messiah by name as “Iesous”; is “Iesous” a Greek word? The answer is now! Does the word “Iesous” mean “Jehovah is salvation”? The answer is no again because it is not a Greek word so it has no meaning! Is “Iesous” a Hebrew word? Yes, it’s in the bible (O.T.) you will find “Esau”; both sounds the same “Iesous and Esau” like wise in Arabic “Isa” all pronounce the same.

 

Now Jouberer, I would like you to show me how they come up with the name “Yeshua” since the so cal original is in Greek. Does the Greek word “Iesous” mean Jehovah is salvation that is why translates it as Yeshua? Show me, I want hard proof!

 

You see Jouberer, the Greek word “Iesous” sound more like “Arabic: Isa” or “Hebrew: Esau which spell as Yesua” and the bible scholars see it fit instead of translate it as “Yesua” they add an “h” to it and you get “Yeshua” and that is because of their doctrine, the believe the Messiah bring salvation and “salvation” would be a more appropriate translation conveniently, where as the bible book of Revelation ch.12 tell us salvation comes after the demise of the messiah (S). That would leave you with no meaning for the name “Jesus”.

 

The chart below will show you even the word “Jesus” didn’t translate from “Iesous” it is more likely they translates it from the word “Yesus” because they always translate the letter “Y” in to “J”

 

Yael   to       Joel

Yehuda       to       Juda

Yeheshua   to       Joshua

Yusuf to       Joseph

Yunus         to       Jonah

Yesus          to       Jesus

Yehowa       to       Jehovah

 

tnc

 

Are your Mike or TNC or can I call you by any name.

With  this names you can came to a conclusion that Jewis can be compared the European names.

Yael   to       Joel

Yehuda       to       Juda

Yeheshua   to       Joshua

Yusuf to       Joseph

Yunus         to       Jonah

Yesus          to       Jesus

Yehowa       to       Jehovah

 

A word or a name in Hebrew which begins with a YODE (Hebrew Y) would have to be transliterated into Greek using an IOTA (Greek I) and would likely be followed by an ETA (Greek E) or an OMIKRON (Greek O), depending on the phonics of the original word. Since there is no letter in Greek equivalent to the Hebrew YODE the Greek IOTA (followed by another vowel to mimick the required sound) is the next best thing. Transliteration is a mimicking or "best rendering" type of work, not an exacting science. A word or a name in Greek which begins with an IOTA would then be transliterated into English using the letter I. In such cases the I would sound like a Y and if we knew for certain the origins of the first word from which the Greek transliteration was conducted (in this case being a Hebrew word that starts with a YODE) we would be justified in bypassing the I altogether and using the Y instead thats where Iesous is coming from and from the Jewis.

 

Right Mike or what shal I call you if some is not calling upon my name I would answer him would you.

 

 

BROTHER JOUBERER, YOU ARE A GENIOUS! YOU SEE WHEN YOU ESTABLISHED HARD PROOF WHAT HAPPEN? THANKS FOR THAT INFO! SO HEBREW IS YESOUS”; GREEK IS IESOUS” AND ARABIC IS ISA” SAME PRONUNCIATION! I GUESS IT DIDN’T PRONOUNCE “YESHUA” AND “JESOUS” AS IN ENGLISH.

 

 

TRUTH IS TRUTH, TRUTH NOW COME!

 

ALLAH HU AKBAR! (GOD IS GREAT!)

 

 

TNC

LET'S SET THE RECORD STRAIGHT ONCE AND FOR ALL...NO MORE LIES!
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bullet Posted: 20 April 2010 at 1:12am

Originally posted by Douggg

Originally posted by truthnowcome

Originally posted by Douggg

Why would it say "daughters of men", if there wasn't something different about the sons of God.   The inference is that the sons of God are not human. 
 
As we know dog make dog! What is your view on God’s sons? I mean to ask, are God’s sons God also? After all, the “inference” is that the sons of God are not human! What are they? And how many sons God has?

 

"sons of God is an idom.    It referes to the angels.   The bible doesn't say that

how many angels there are.   It does say that a 1/3 of them rebelled and followed Satan.

Originally posted by Douggg

And what does your koran or accepted muslim scholars declare the sons of God were?

The Scholars has less to do with the bible, and they does not believe angels have s_x with mortal.

Originally posted by Douggg

Originally posted by truthnowcome

 

Originally posted by Douggg

Why would it say "daughters of men", if there wasn't something different about the sons of God.   The inference is that the sons of God are not human. 

Genesis 6:4 There were giants [nephilim] in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old,

[QUOTE]That is a very interesting conclusion: God’s sons produce Satan’s biological seed to corrupt the earth! Are those Christians have brains? I mean God’s seeds produce God’s sons and his sons’ seeds produce Satan’s seed! Very good! It nothing new with Christians, they already believe 1+1+1=1

Keep watching your video!

Again, the son of God are an idom.   I recommended the videos because the subject matter pertaining to the nephillim and the sons of God are too lengthy for this discussion.   Since Islam does not have an answer, or at least you so far have not indicated what muslim scholars say about Genesis 6:4 in particular, I thought the videos would be appropriate.

If nephillim is the angels’ seeds and God curse Satan in to a snake what kind of seed Satan has? We were discussing where you claimed woman has seed, so who, I mean what is Satan’s seed?

 

Originally posted by Douggg

Originally posted by truthnowcome

Mr. Dougg! Come to grips! I ask for “FACT” not “THEORY and POSSIBILITY” Your bible truth is that God will put enmity between Satan’s seed and the woman seed” so said you bible. Not the seeds of God’s sons!



The bible doesn't say "God's sons" in Genesis 6:4.  It says "sons of God", an idom.
Originally posted by Douggg

There are some Christian prophecies in Revelation 17 regarding the beast the ascends from the bottomless pit could be the spirit of said specific offspring of Satan. 
Which off spring of Satan’s seed? You mean the seeds of God’s biological sons when the came in on the women? After all, the “inference” is that the sons of God are not human, they are Satan’s seeds! 
You are totally confused.   The specific nephilim that was Satan's seed is not known.   Remember this is a theory to address who is the beast in the bottomless pit - who was there in the time of John.

Revelation 17:8 The beast that thou sawest was, and is not; and shall ascend out of the bottomless pit, and go into perdition: and they that dwell on the earth shall wonder, whose names were not written in the book of life from the foundation of the world, when they behold the beast that was, and is not, and yet is. 

It seems to me you are more confuse. God curse Satan in to a snake when he pass judgment on the woman (eve) and suddenly he was still flying in heaven until the woman seed multiply then he decided to come down and have s_x with them. Is that bible truth?

 

 

Br. zainool

 

LET'S SET THE RECORD STRAIGHT ONCE AND FOR ALL...NO MORE LIES!
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bullet Posted: 24 April 2010 at 8:37am
Originally posted by truthnowcome

Originally posted by JOUBERAR

Originally posted by truthnowcome

Nice try Jouberer, you got help from Mike! Even he can help you here! Let me see if you can prove your case by establishing “FACT”.

The so cal original bible the have today is in Greek, they don’t have the original in Aramaic or Hebrew which is the language it suppose to be in since that was the language the disciples uses. Let’s used some logic here, again, your name is JUOBERER (English); if you go to an Arabic speaking country or any foreign country that speak another language than yours, what name you think they will call you? By translating your name in to Arabic or any foreign name or they will call you by your same name, the original pronunciation “JOUBERER”? It would be your own name, JOUBERER! They might spell it a little different but the “pronunciation” would be the same. Example: JOBERER, JUBERER, JUBBERER, JUOBERRER and so on.

 

Here is the catch: the so call original Greek bible mentioned the Messiah by name as “Iesous”; is “Iesous” a Greek word? The answer is now! Does the word “Iesous” mean “Jehovah is salvation”? The answer is no again because it is not a Greek word so it has no meaning! Is “Iesous” a Hebrew word? Yes, it’s in the bible (O.T.) you will find “Esau”; both sounds the same “Iesous and Esau” like wise in Arabic “Isa” all pronounce the same.

 

Now Jouberer, I would like you to show me how they come up with the name “Yeshua” since the so cal original is in Greek. Does the Greek word “Iesous” mean Jehovah is salvation that is why translates it as Yeshua? Show me, I want hard proof!

 

You see Jouberer, the Greek word “Iesous” sound more like “Arabic: Isa” or “Hebrew: Esau which spell as Yesua” and the bible scholars see it fit instead of translate it as “Yesua” they add an “h” to it and you get “Yeshua” and that is because of their doctrine, the believe the Messiah bring salvation and “salvation” would be a more appropriate translation conveniently, where as the bible book of Revelation ch.12 tell us salvation comes after the demise of the messiah (S). That would leave you with no meaning for the name “Jesus”.

 

The chart below will show you even the word “Jesus” didn’t translate from “Iesous” it is more likely they translates it from the word “Yesus” because they always translate the letter “Y” in to “J”

 

Yael   to       Joel

Yehuda       to       Juda

Yeheshua   to       Joshua

Yusuf to       Joseph

Yunus         to       Jonah

Yesus          to       Jesus

Yehowa       to       Jehovah

 

tnc

 

Are your Mike or TNC or can I call you by any name.

With  this names you can came to a conclusion that Jewis can be compared the European names.

Yael   to       Joel

Yehuda       to       Juda

Yeheshua   to       Joshua

Yusuf to       Joseph

Yunus         to       Jonah

Yesus          to       Jesus

Yehowa       to       Jehovah

 

A word or a name in Hebrew which begins with a YODE (Hebrew Y) would have to be transliterated into Greek using an IOTA (Greek I) and would likely be followed by an ETA (Greek E) or an OMIKRON (Greek O), depending on the phonics of the original word. Since there is no letter in Greek equivalent to the Hebrew YODE the Greek IOTA (followed by another vowel to mimick the required sound) is the next best thing. Transliteration is a mimicking or "best rendering" type of work, not an exacting science. A word or a name in Greek which begins with an IOTA would then be transliterated into English using the letter I. In such cases the I would sound like a Y and if we knew for certain the origins of the first word from which the Greek transliteration was conducted (in this case being a Hebrew word that starts with a YODE) we would be justified in bypassing the I altogether and using the Y instead thats where Iesous is coming from and from the Jewis.

 

Right Mike or what shal I call you if some is not calling upon my name I would answer him would you.

 

 

BROTHER JOUBERER, YOU ARE A GENIOUS! YOU SEE WHEN YOU ESTABLISHED HARD PROOF WHAT HAPPEN? THANKS FOR THAT INFO! SO HEBREW IS YESOUS”; GREEK IS IESOUS” AND ARABIC IS ISA” SAME PRONUNCIATION! I GUESS IT DIDN’T PRONOUNCE “YESHUA” AND “JESOUS” AS IN ENGLISH.

 

 

TRUTH IS TRUTH, TRUTH NOW COME!

 

ALLAH HU AKBAR! (GOD IS GREAT!)

 

 

TNC

 
 
ISA is "Inshaa Allah (Arabic), OK"
Arabic-speaking Christians refer to Jesus as Yasu
The Arabic name Isa is related to the Biblical name Esau.
 
 
What is Jesus' original name? The historically correct answer can only be that it is the name that he was given at his "naming ceremony" (Luke 2:21), the name by which he was called by his mother, his foster-father, his siblings and other relatives, his neighbors, his friends and his disciples during his life on earth. There is no disagreement about the fact that Jesus was not an Arab but a Jew who lived in Israel and was born into a family of pious Jews. He had without question a Hebrew name. His original (i.e. true) name is neither European nor Arabic, so it was neither Jesus nor Yasu' nor Esa. A close phonetic transliteration of Jesus' Hebrew name into modern English would be Yeshua'. In fact, the choice of his name receives considerable attention in the Gospels. His name was not arbitrarily chosen by his parents, but he received his name based on God's direct command (Matthew 1:21, Luke 1:31) because the meaning of this name expresses the purpose for which he was born (Matthew 1:21).
 
  1. Arab Christians usually use the name Esa for Jesus — though we acknowledges there exists a second name, Yasu', that is used by Arab Christians as well.

  2. There is a considerable qualitative difference between the names Esa and Yasu'. In particular, he claims:

    1. Yasu' is a mere (human) invention. As the source of the invention he indentifies Arab Christians.
      By implication, this claim suggests that the name Esa was not invented (by humans) but was divinely revealed.
    2. Esa is Jesus' (correct) Arabic name. Yet, not only that,
    3. Esa is his true name.
 

The traditional Arabic name for Jesus is Yasu'. Until very recent times, all Arab Christians used no other name for Jesus. And even today, that is the name used by more than 99% of all Arab Christians. Just walk into any Arab Christian church, turn on Arabic Christian broadcasting, read Arabic Christian literature written for Christians. You will only find Yasu', never Esa. Only very recently (perhaps some 25 years ago) some Christians started to use the name Esa in Arabic publications written specifically for Muslims in the hope that they may more easily accept their message if they see the quranic name for Jesus instead of the traditional Christian one.[1] Nevertheless, among themselves, Arab Christians do not use Esa. Muslims statement suggests that Arab Christians commonly use Esa, and that is simply wrong.

The traditional Arabic rendering or transliteration of the original Hebrew name (Yeshua') is Yasu'. Every choice of transliteration of a foreign name into a different language is a human "invention". The English spelling "Muhammad" is just as much an invention as "Jesus" or "Yasu'" or "Esa". Problems only arise when people like muslims make the claim that the quranic invention "Esa" is the true (i.e. original) name of Jesus. That is merely a polemical attempt to elevate the Islamic invention not only above all other renderings in other languages, but even above the original. That is unacceptable, and it is bad scholarship.

Linguistically it is clear how the rendering of the Hebrew Yeshua'  developed into the English Jesus:

Yeshua' (Hebrew) —> Ιησους (Greek) —> Iesus (Latin) —> Jesus (English).

The crucial transition is from the Hebrew to the Greek. This step was taken already more than 200 years before Jesus was born. The translators of the Septuagint (LXX), the classical Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, rendered Jesus' Hebrew name as Ιησους in Greek. The Gospels were written in the Greek language and merely followed this long-established practice.

Since Hebrew and Arabic are both Semitic languages, and they are closely related, there are certain well-known rules which sounds/letters in Hebrew correspond to which sounds/letters in Arabic. Specifically, the Hebrew letter Shin regularly turns into the Arabic letter Sin, e.g. the Hebrew word for peace, shalom, corresponds to the Arabic word salam. According to those linguistic rules and relationships between Hebrew and Arabic, Yasu' is the proper Arabic equivalent for the Hebrew Yeshua':

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bullet Posted: 26 April 2010 at 11:57pm

Originally posted by JOUBERAR

 

 

ISA is "Inshaa Allah (Arabic), OK"
Arabic-speaking Christians refer to Jesus as Yasu

The Arabic name Isa is related to the Biblical name Esau.

 

 

What is Jesus' original name? The historically correct answer can only be that it is the name that he was given at his "naming ceremony" (Luke 2:21), the name by which he was called by his mother, his foster-father, his siblings and other relatives, his neighbors, his friends and his disciples during his life on earth. There is no disagreement about the fact that Jesus was not an Arab but a Jew who lived in Israel and was born into a family of pious Jews. He had without question a Hebrew name. His original (i.e. true) name is neither European nor Arabic, so it was neither Jesus nor Yasu' nor Esa. A close phonetic transliteration of Jesus' Hebrew name into modern English would be Yeshua'. In fact, the choice of his name receives considerable attention in the Gospels. His name was not arbitrarily chosen by his parents, but he received his name based on God's direct command (Matthew 1:21, Luke 1:31) because the meaning of this name expresses the purpose for which he was born (Matthew 1:21).

 

1.    Arab Christians usually use the name Esa for Jesus — though we acknowledges there exists a second name, Yasu', that is used by Arab Christians as well.

2.    There is a considerable qualitative difference between the names Esa and Yasu'. In particular, he claims:

1.    Yasu' is a mere (human) invention. As the source of the invention he indentifies Arab Christians.
By implication, this claim suggests that the name Esa was not invented (by humans) but was divinely revealed.

2.    Esa is Jesus' (correct) Arabic name. Yet, not only that,

3.    Esa is his true name.

 

The traditional Arabic name for Jesus is Yasu'. Until very recent times, all Arab Christians used no other name for Jesus. And even today, that is the name used by more than 99% of all Arab Christians. Just walk into any Arab Christian church, turn on Arabic Christian broadcasting, read Arabic Christian literature written for Christians. You will only find Yasu', never Esa. Only very recently (perhaps some 25 years ago) some Christians started to use the name Esa in Arabic publications written specifically for Muslims in the hope that they may more easily accept their message if they see the quranic name for Jesus instead of the traditional Christian one.[1] Nevertheless, among themselves, Arab Christians do not use Esa. Muslims statement suggests that Arab Christians commonly use Esa, and that is simply wrong.

The traditional Arabic rendering or transliteration of the original Hebrew name (Yeshua') is Yasu'. Every choice of transliteration of a foreign name into a different language is a human "invention". The English spelling "Muhammad" is just as much an invention as "Jesus" or "Yasu'" or "Esa". Problems only arise when people like muslims make the claim that the quranic invention "Esa" is the true (i.e. original) name of Jesus. That is merely a polemical attempt to elevate the Islamic invention not only above all other renderings in other languages, but even above the original. That is unacceptable, and it is bad scholarship.

Linguistically it is clear how the rendering of the Hebrew Yeshua'  developed into the English Jesus:

Yeshua' (Hebrew) —> Ιησους (Greek) —> Iesus (Latin) —> Jesus (English).

The crucial transition is from the Hebrew to the Greek. This step was taken already more than 200 years before Jesus was born. The translators of the Septuagint (LXX), the classical Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, rendered Jesus' Hebrew name as Ιησους in Greek. The Gospels were written in the Greek language and merely followed this long-established practice.

Since Hebrew and Arabic are both Semitic languages, and they are closely related, there are certain well-known rules which sounds/letters in Hebrew correspond to which sounds/letters in Arabic. Specifically, the Hebrew letter Shin regularly turns into the Arabic letter Sin, e.g. the Hebrew word for peace, shalom, corresponds to the Arabic word salam. According to those linguistic rules and relationships between Hebrew and Arabic, Yasu' is the proper Arabic equivalent for the Hebrew Yeshua':

 

Brother Jouberer you see how you move away from the “FACT” when you try to twist the truth.

 

The truth is Christians don’t have no solid proof that “Yeshua” is the Messiah (S) name, what they have and claimed is the original is in Greek; so we have to start with the “original” that is “FACT”

 

What is the “original? The “original” word is is Ιησους (Greek)

 

Matthew1:21  "She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins."

tecetai de uion kai kaleseiv (5692) to onoma autou Ihsoun, autov gar swsei (5692) ton laon autou apo twn amartiwn autwn.

First I got “Iesous” now I got ‘Ihsoun” let them keep changing, the pronunciation remain the same.

 

This is what you said before:

[/QUOTE] With this names you can came to a conclusion that Jews can be compared the European names.

Yael   to       Joel

Yehuda       to       Juda

Yeheshua   to       Joshua

Yusuf to       Joseph

Yunus         to       Jonah

Yesus          to       Jesus

Yehowa       to       Jehovah

 

A word or a name in Hebrew which begins with a YODE (Hebrew Y) would have to be transliterated into Greek using an IOTA (Greek I) and would likely be followed by an ETA (Greek E) or an OMIKRON (Greek O), depending on the phonics of the original word. Since there is no letter in Greek equivalent to the Hebrew YODE the Greek IOTA (followed by another vowel to mimick the required sound) is the next best thing. Transliteration is a mimicking or "best rendering" type of work, not an exacting science. A word or a name in Greek which begins with an IOTA would then be transliterated into English using the letter I. In such cases the I would sound like a Y and if we knew for certain the origins of the first word from which the Greek transliteration was conducted (in this case being a Hebrew word that starts with a YODE) we would be justified in bypassing the I altogether and using the Y instead thats where Iesous is coming from and from the Jews.

[/QUOTE]

 

Know the “FACT”: The original is in Greek, so from the Greek we have to transliterate it back into Hebrew.

 

GREEK IS IESOUS” HEBREW IS YESOUS”.

 

The Christian Arabs got the name from the Christians who translate “Iesous” (Greek) into Hebrew (Jeshua) that is how the come up with the name “Yesu”; then comes the Quran to correct them with the original pronunciation “Isa” and it pronounce just like the suppose only original in Greek “Iesous” which they now change to “Ihsoun”

 

 

Let them keep changing! That is to tell they are keeping abreast with my message, Alhamdullah! When I used studylite. Org Greek lexicon I always got the name “Iesous” now they change it to “Ihsoun”

 

Go to this lexicon you will see the game the devil is playing: http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/

 

Type in the name “Jesus” you will get “Iesous”

 

Another one: http://bible.christianity.com/references/DescriptionSearch.aspx?refid=116587&l=211009&section=Lexicons&type=Lexicon

 

 

http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/Jesus

 

Origin:
1200–50; ME <
LL Iēsus < Gk Iēsoûs < Heb Yēshūaʿ, syncopated var. of Yəhōshūaʿ God is help; in Early Modern E, the distinction (lost in ME) between Jesus (nom.) and Jesu (obl., especially voc.; see Jesu) was revived on the model of L and Gk sources; Jesus gradually supplanted the older form in both nom. and obl.

 

tnc

 



Edited by truthnowcome - 27 April 2010 at 12:03am
LET'S SET THE RECORD STRAIGHT ONCE AND FOR ALL...NO MORE LIES!
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bullet Posted: 27 April 2010 at 2:07pm
Originally posted by truthnowcome

Originally posted by JOUBERAR

 

 

ISA is "Inshaa Allah (Arabic), OK"
Arabic-speaking Christians refer to Jesus as Yasu

The Arabic name Isa is related to the Biblical name Esau.

 

 

What is Jesus' original name? The historically correct answer can only be that it is the name that he was given at his "naming ceremony" (Luke 2:21), the name by which he was called by his mother, his foster-father, his siblings and other relatives, his neighbors, his friends and his disciples during his life on earth. There is no disagreement about the fact that Jesus was not an Arab but a Jew who lived in Israel and was born into a family of pious Jews. He had without question a Hebrew name. His original (i.e. true) name is neither European nor Arabic, so it was neither Jesus nor Yasu' nor Esa. A close phonetic transliteration of Jesus' Hebrew name into modern English would be Yeshua'. In fact, the choice of his name receives considerable attention in the Gospels. His name was not arbitrarily chosen by his parents, but he received his name based on God's direct command (Matthew 1:21, Luke 1:31) because the meaning of this name expresses the purpose for which he was born (Matthew 1:21).

 

1.    Arab Christians usually use the name Esa for Jesus — though we acknowledges there exists a second name, Yasu', that is used by Arab Christians as well.

2.    There is a considerable qualitative difference between the names Esa and Yasu'. In particular, he claims:

1.    Yasu' is a mere (human) invention. As the source of the invention he indentifies Arab Christians.
By implication, this claim suggests that the name Esa was not invented (by humans) but was divinely revealed.

2.    Esa is Jesus' (correct) Arabic name. Yet, not only that,

3.    Esa is his true name.

 

The traditional Arabic name for Jesus is Yasu'. Until very recent times, all Arab Christians used no other name for Jesus. And even today, that is the name used by more than 99% of all Arab Christians. Just walk into any Arab Christian church, turn on Arabic Christian broadcasting, read Arabic Christian literature written for Christians. You will only find Yasu', never Esa. Only very recently (perhaps some 25 years ago) some Christians started to use the name Esa in Arabic publications written specifically for Muslims in the hope that they may more easily accept their message if they see the quranic name for Jesus instead of the traditional Christian one.[1] Nevertheless, among themselves, Arab Christians do not use Esa. Muslims statement suggests that Arab Christians commonly use Esa, and that is simply wrong.

The traditional Arabic rendering or transliteration of the original Hebrew name (Yeshua') is Yasu'. Every choice of transliteration of a foreign name into a different language is a human "invention". The English spelling "Muhammad" is just as much an invention as "Jesus" or "Yasu'" or "Esa". Problems only arise when people like muslims make the claim that the quranic invention "Esa" is the true (i.e. original) name of Jesus. That is merely a polemical attempt to elevate the Islamic invention not only above all other renderings in other languages, but even above the original. That is unacceptable, and it is bad scholarship.

Linguistically it is clear how the rendering of the Hebrew Yeshua'  developed into the English Jesus:

Yeshua' (Hebrew) —> Ιησους (Greek) —> Iesus (Latin) —> Jesus (English).

The crucial transition is from the Hebrew to the Greek. This step was taken already more than 200 years before Jesus was born. The translators of the Septuagint (LXX), the classical Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, rendered Jesus' Hebrew name as Ιησους in Greek. The Gospels were written in the Greek language and merely followed this long-established practice.

Since Hebrew and Arabic are both Semitic languages, and they are closely related, there are certain well-known rules which sounds/letters in Hebrew correspond to which sounds/letters in Arabic. Specifically, the Hebrew letter Shin regularly turns into the Arabic letter Sin, e.g. the Hebrew word for peace, shalom, corresponds to the Arabic word salam. According to those linguistic rules and relationships between Hebrew and Arabic, Yasu' is the proper Arabic equivalent for the Hebrew Yeshua':

 

Brother Jouberer you see how you move away from the “FACT” when you try to twist the truth.

 

The truth is Christians don’t have no solid proof that “Yeshua” is the Messiah (S) name, what they have and claimed is the original is in Greek; so we have to start with the “original” that is “FACT”

 

What is the “original? The “original” word is is Ιησους (Greek)

 

Matthew1:21  "She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins."

tecetai de uion kai kaleseiv (5692) to onoma autou Ihsoun, autov gar swsei (5692) ton laon autou apo twn amartiwn autwn.

First I got “Iesous” now I got ‘Ihsoun” let them keep changing, the pronunciation remain the same.

 

This is what you said before:

With this names you can came to a conclusion that Jews can be compared the European names.

Yael   to       Joel

Yehuda       to       Juda

Yeheshua   to       Joshua

Yusuf to       Joseph

Yunus         to       Jonah

Yesus          to       Jesus

Yehowa       to       Jehovah

 

A word or a name in Hebrew which begins with a YODE (Hebrew Y) would have to be transliterated into Greek using an IOTA (Greek I) and would likely be followed by an ETA (Greek E) or an OMIKRON (Greek O), depending on the phonics of the original word. Since there is no letter in Greek equivalent to the Hebrew YODE the Greek IOTA (followed by another vowel to mimick the required sound) is the next best thing. Transliteration is a mimicking or "best rendering" type of work, not an exacting science. A word or a name in Greek which begins with an IOTA would then be transliterated into English using the letter I. In such cases the I would sound like a Y and if we knew for certain the origins of the first word from which the Greek transliteration was conducted (in this case being a Hebrew word that starts with a YODE) we would be justified in bypassing the I altogether and using the Y instead thats where Iesous is coming from and from the Jews.

[/QUOTE]

 

Know the “FACT”: The original is in Greek, so from the Greek we have to transliterate it back into Hebrew.

 

GREEK IS IESOUS” HEBREW IS YESOUS”.

 

The Christian Arabs got the name from the Christians who translate “Iesous” (Greek) into Hebrew (Jeshua) that is how the come up with the name “Yesu”; then comes the Quran to correct them with the original pronunciation “Isa” and it pronounce just like the suppose only original in Greek “Iesous” which they now change to “Ihsoun”

 

 

Let them keep changing! That is to tell they are keeping abreast with my message, Alhamdullah! When I used studylite. Org Greek lexicon I always got the name “Iesous” now they change it to “Ihsoun”

 

Go to this lexicon you will see the game the devil is playing: http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/

 

Type in the name “Jesus” you will get “Iesous”

 

Another one: http://bible.christianity.com/references/DescriptionSearch.aspx?refid=116587&l=211009&section=Lexicons&type=Lexicon

 

 

http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/Jesus

 

Origin:
1200–50; ME <
LL Iēsus < Gk Iēsoûs < Heb Yēshūaʿ, syncopated var. of Yəhōshūaʿ God is help; in Early Modern E, the distinction (lost in ME) between Jesus (nom.) and Jesu (obl., especially voc.; see Jesu) was revived on the model of L and Gk sources; Jesus gradually supplanted the older form in both nom. and obl.

 

tnc

 

[/QUOTE]
 
You see TNC the Arab Christians was fimiliar with word Yesu where Muhammad came upon Eesa he will only know, I think he heard his stories all wrong and gave Jesus the wrong name. 
 
 
The Qur'an was revealed over 600 years after the ascent of Jesus, in far away Arabia where most of the Christians would have been calling him "Yesu`" from the same "Y'SHW" found in their Christian Biblical teachings which were sketchy at best. However, the Qur'an from which the Prophet Muhammad  was teaching, mentioned a Jewish Messiah, who performed brilliant miracles, born of a pure virgin, who was named "`Eesa". The Arab Christians were familiar with "Yesu`" whom they knew as their Lord and Savior.

Others are making the case that Esa is actually derogatory, and the method this name was constructed by indicates that it is a way of cursing Jesus. That is quite a shocking interpretation, but the main evidence for this argument is that the Arabic spelling of Esa is a reversal of the consonants (more correctly, a grammatical inversion) of the correct Arabic name Yasu'.

Early Hebrew (long form):    Yehoshua' =  Yod + He + Shin + Waw + 'Ain
Later Hebrew (short form):     Yeshua' =  Yod + Shin + Waw + 'Ain
Arabic (Christian):              Yasu' =   Ya + Sin + Waw + 'Ain
Arabic (Muslim):                  'Isa = 'Ain + Ya  + Sin + Ya 

Ya and Waw are weak letters and Arabic grammar teaches that one can turn into the other as words take on different forms (declension, inflection). Thus, one can see that the Muslim form 'Isa is basically an inversion (with the change of Waw to Ya) of the Christian form Yasu'. Is that accidental?

When we furthermore realize that the Qur'an denies and attacks all essential elements of the Gospel (Jesus is not God, Jesus is not the Son of God, Jesus did not die on the Cross, Mankind is not lost and does not need a savior, there is no Trinity), and that the Qur'an puts a curse on all who believe that Jesus is the Son of God (S. 9:30), then it is not altogether unbelievable that even Jesus himself is cursed in the Qur'an in a veiled way by reversing the consonants that make up his true name.

 
 
 


Edited by JOUBERAR - 27 April 2010 at 2:08pm
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You see since Muhammad the muslims had suffered from a severe case of inferrior complex now it is all of a sudden the jews that is jealous of Ishmeal for what reason no one knows,....... because God chose the descendands of Isaac above Ishmael's it is the other around the muslims are jealous of the jews because they had a so called prophet who made his on so called false religion who intended to be a so called descendand of Ishmael and just because of the circumcision God had made a so called covenant with Ishmael...... then God have made covenant with all the men ,foreingners and borned in Abraham's house that were circumcised..... with Abraham, tipical islamic rhetoric to mislead anybody, and now the jews have swap the names of Isaac with Ishmael, now the Jews have violated the covenant do you think God would allowed it just so that the poor self pitied muslims always feel sorry for themselfs what a shame.   
 
 The Jews have always been jealous of Ishmael because they know very well that in him the Covenant was made and with his circumcision it was concluded and sealed, and it is out of this rancor that their scribes or doctors of law have corrupted and interpolated many passages in their Scriptures. To efface the name "Ishmael" from the second, sixth, and seventh verses of the twenty-second chapter of the Book of Genesis and to insert in its place "Isaac," and to leave the descriptive epithet "thy only begotten son" is to deny the existence of the former and to violate the Covenant made between God and Ishmael. It is expressly said in this chapter by God: "Because thou didst not spare thy only begotten son, I will increase and multiply thy posterity like the stars and the sands on the seashore," which word "multiply" was used by the Angel to Hagar in the wilderness: I will multiply thy offspring to an innumerable multitude, and that Ishmael "shall become a fruitful man" (Gen. xvi. 12). Now the Christians have translated the same Hebrew word, which means "fruitful" or "plentiful" from the verb para - identical with the Arabic wefera - in their versions "a wild ass"! Is it not a shame and impiety to call Ishmael "a wild ass" whom God styles "Fruitful" or "Plentiful"?
 
 
Gen 17:26 In the selfsame day was Abraham circumcised, and Ishmael his son.

Gen 17:27 And all the men of his house, those born in the house, and those bought with money of a foreigner, were circumcised with him.(So dont forget God have  covenant with all them too )

Sorry try again later here is the covenant that God had made.
 
 

Gen 17:19 And God said, Nay, but Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son; and thou shalt call his name Isaac: and I will establish my covenant with him for an everlasting covenant for his seed after him.

 
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