IslamiCity Forum - Islamic Discussion Forum: temporary marriage/mut`a

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Originally posted by myahya

 For a second assume that Mutahh is Halal. If it be, sexual evils (from religious point of view) would be disappeared (or dramatically decreased) If any fornication (or other Haram sexual activities or relationships) happened in a Muslim society was replaced by a Mutahh while such a replacement can be performed unconditionally. In practice, for example fornication can not be unconditionally and globally replaced by a permanent marriage (for anybody in any situation, any society and any time). 

Okay, for discussion's sake it is assumed Mutaah is Halal.

Lets analyse the fornicator, shall we? Most of such ppl fornicate because they are either not aware of religion, or concious of it. Or, even if they are, they forget consequences and submit to the nafs at the moment. Hence, those people are not likely to conduct Mutaah anyway. They would not even consider Nikaah. Majority of such sins occur spur of the moment, when a Muslim is led astray and forgets consequences - the remaining ones dont care about religion. Thus, they are  not-likely to conduct  a Mutaah. 

The majority of Muslim fornicators are not likely to plan thier sins in advance - hence are not likely to say, oh! we may fornicate, let us do Nikaah/Mutaah to save ourselves.  Had they stopped to think or consider, they may not have sinned in the first place, or they may have gone for Nikaah. But the fact of the matter is, that in cases like these - it is solely up to the Taqwa and Will-power of the person. . . if they are God-fearing, they will not sin regardless of marital status. But if they are of a loose-character, they will sleep around even if they are married. 

Also . . . .Let us assume for a second that people do stop themselves in order to conduct Mutaah. Is it really that beneficial? /moral? If that would be the case, young people would be conducting marriages lasting a few hours, just like the ones that happen in Vegas. What would happen is, that the sancitity of Marriage would be made a sham. One of the main purposes of Marriage is to decrease promiscuity. Promiscuity means having diverse/unrelated/indiscriminate/casual sexual partners. The nature of Mutaah is such, that it is still enabling Promiscuity. . . . i.e. allowing ppl to conduct temporary relations with anyone, only to end, and then began again , with someone else. Promiscuity as we all know, is bad - medically, socially, psychologically - and now with the advent of DNA-testing and childsupport, economically as well.

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Chrysalis Senior Member Joined: 25 November 2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 2031	Posted: 08 January 2009 at 3:08am
	*Originally posted by myahya* For a second assume that Mutahh is Halal. If it be, sexual evils (from religious point of view) would be disappeared (or dramatically decreased) If any fornication (or other Haram sexual activities or relationships) happened in a Muslim society was replaced by a Mutahh while such a replacement can be performed unconditionally. In practice, for example fornication can not be unconditionally and globally replaced by a permanent marriage (for anybody in any situation, any society and any time). Okay, for discussion's sake it is assumed Mutaah is Halal. Lets analyse the fornicator, shall we? Most of such ppl fornicate because they are either not aware of religion, or concious of it. Or, even if they are, they forget consequences and submit to the nafs at the moment. Hence, those people are not likely to conduct Mutaah anyway. They would not even consider Nikaah. Majority of such sins occur spur of the moment, when a Muslim is led astray and forgets consequences - the remaining ones dont care about religion. Thus, they are not-likely to conduct a Mutaah. The majority of Muslim fornicators are not likely to plan thier sins in advance - hence are not likely to say, oh! we may fornicate, let us do Nikaah/Mutaah to save ourselves. Had they stopped to think or consider, they may not have sinned in the first place, or they may have gone for Nikaah. But the fact of the matter is, that in cases like these - it is solely up to the Taqwa and Will-power of the person. . . if they are God-fearing, they will not sin regardless of marital status. But if they are of a loose-character, they will sleep around even if they are married. Also . . . .Let us assume for a second that people do stop themselves in order to conduct Mutaah. Is it really that beneficial? /moral? If that would be the case, young people would be conducting marriages lasting a few hours, just like the ones that happen in Vegas. What would happen is, that the sancitity of Marriage would be made a sham. One of the main purposes of Marriage is to decrease promiscuity. Promiscuity means having diverse/unrelated/indiscriminate/casual sexual partners. The nature of Mutaah is such, that it is still enabling Promiscuity. . . . i.e. allowing ppl to conduct temporary relations with anyone, only to end, and then began again , with someone else. Promiscuity as we all know, is bad - medically, socially, psychologically - and now with the advent of DNA-testing and childsupport, economically as well.
	"O Lord, forgive me, my parents and Muslims in the Hereafter. O Lord, show mercy on them as they showed mercy to me when I was young."
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Sign*Reader Senior Member Joined: 02 November 2005 Online Status: Offline Posts: 3352	Posted: 08 January 2009 at 1:41pm
	Any one/ Is there a limit on number of mutahs one can conduct simultaneously?
	Kismet Domino: Faith/Courage/Liberty/Abundance/Selfishness/Immorality/Apathy/Bondage or extinction.
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StepFriend Starter Joined: 09 January 2009 Location: Pakistan Online Status: Offline Posts: 1	Posted: 09 January 2009 at 3:34am
	I have read this debate a-z and also on various other forums .. its bizzar strange and non-sense.. then why am i contributing here .. funny .. but i could not stop from adding a few points that have come to my knowlege 1. the interpertation of Ayah is disputed as per Shia friends .. then why debate so much .. Lakum Deeno kum Waleya Deen ... go figure .. 2. mosty supposedly Shia men insist on its being Halal .. but i have personally met shia girls from noble familes who consider it as filthy and a form of prostitution .. i could not agree any shia girl getting into Muta except those in Heera Mandi 3. All those men who advocate Mut'a so much i have a simple question did your mother bore you as a result of Mut'a or do you allow your sister or daugther the same .. if yes .. i am willing .. let me know 4. on internet you never know that who the other person is .. so it could be a hindu .. a jew or even a sunni .. trying to entertain himself .. so such debates are usually not productive .. my advice is .. no use ..
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myahya Senior Member Joined: 06 February 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 222	Posted: 09 January 2009 at 8:03am
	The majority of Muslim fornicators are not likely to plan thier sins in advance - hence are not likely to say, oh! we may fornicate, let us do Nikaah/Mutaah to save ourselves. They do not plan in advance?! Anyway there is a start point for the relationship. The very start point can not be a sexual activity. And I am sure you are not suggesting that the very start point is an Islamic dating. A dating which might eventually lead to fornication can not be Islamic. If two Muslims start a relationship if the very start point of the relationship be Nikah or Mutaah, then ALL conditions are already specified in details in advance. If Mutaah be Halal, and if they can not wait for Nikah and commit sin and/or fornication they are absolutely responsible for it. There is no room for accusing Allah or his Messenger that the external conditions had not been there for avoiding fornication. If that would be the case, young people would be conducting marriages lasting a few hours, just like the ones that happen in Vegas. Abusing Mutaah would not be allowed like abusing Nikah or any other Halal. Eating Halal food in Islam is praised. What if one eats and eats to the edge of death? Of course it is a great sin. A Muslim who has Taqwaa should fear of Allah. Such a person should know as a Muslim that if s/he abuses any Halal then they are not just and will be responsible for the consequences in this world and in the other. Edited by myahya - 09 January 2009 at 8:06am
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Chrysalis Senior Member Joined: 25 November 2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 2031	Posted: 10 January 2009 at 12:18am
	*Originally posted by StepFriend* I 4. on internet you never know that who the other person is .. so it could be a hindu .. a jew or even a sunni .. trying to entertain himself .. so such debates are usually not productive .. my advice is .. no use .. Hello StepFriend, It is irrelevant who the other person is, that does not really affect the discussion, and its not a debate. If the other person gets kicks out of online discussions, good for them - however I think that it is sort of incumbent on muslims to say something or speak out. They need not pursue it endlessly, but something should be said. Just like you, I am sure there were many new muslims, or nonmuslims reading this thread, wondering why Islam alllows temporary marriages - hopefully inshalah thier misconceptions were cleared. It irks me when muslims themselves give nonmuslims an opportunity to badmouth Islam. Our purpose should not be to convince the other person - because that rarely happens - it should be to get the message across. Then leave the rest to Allah. Jazakallah for your advise though.
	"O Lord, forgive me, my parents and Muslims in the Hereafter. O Lord, show mercy on them as they showed mercy to me when I was young."
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Chrysalis Senior Member Joined: 25 November 2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 2031	Posted: 20 January 2009 at 3:11am
	Sahih Bukhari , Volume 5, Book 59, Number 527: Narrated 'Ali bin Abi Talib: On the day of Khaibar, Allah's Apostle forbade the Mut'a (i.e. temporary marriage) and the eating of donkey-meat
	"O Lord, forgive me, my parents and Muslims in the Hereafter. O Lord, show mercy on them as they showed mercy to me when I was young."
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myahya Senior Member Joined: 06 February 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 222	Posted: 21 January 2009 at 8:18am
	Sahih Muslim http://www.usc.edu/schools/college/crcc/engagement/resources/texts/muslim/hadith/muslim/008.smt.html Book 008, Number 3267: 'Ali (Allah be pleased with him) said to Ibn 'Abbas (Allah be pleased with them) that Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) on the Day of Khaibar forbade forever the contracting of temporary marriage and the eating of the flesh of domestic asses. This means that the temporary marriage was forbidden on the day of Khaibar forever. Book 008, Number 3255: Sabra al-Juhanni reported on the authority of his father that while he was with Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon hm) he said: 0 people, I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women, but Allah has forbidden it (now) until the Day of Resurrection. So he who has any (woman with this type of marriage contract) he should let her off, and do not take back anything you have given to then (as dower). Book 008, Number 3256: This hadith has been narrated on the authority of 'Abd al-'Aziz b 'Umar with the same chain of transmitters, and he said: I saw Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) standing between the pillar and the gate (of the Ka'ba) and he was relating a hadith as narrated by Ibn Numair. Again it seems it was forbidden on the day of victory of Mecca forever. Book 008, Number 3251: Iyas b. Salama reported on the authority of his father that Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) gave sanction for contracting temporary marriage for three nights in the year of Autas 1847 and then forbade it. Thus, again it was forbidden after the battle of Hunain. I am confused with these ahadith. Something seems wrong with them. How is it possible that it was forbidden FOREVER by the prophet at two different points of time, on the Day of Khaibar and on the victory of Mecca and both with the order of the prophet? If it is forbidden forever it must be one time. People were practicing it between these two instants of time?? Did they not know that it was forbidden forever? Then it was again permitted and forbidden after the battle of Hunain with the order of the Prophet?!! On the other hand, some other ahadith say that it was Umar that forbid them. Shall I bring them? How we can trust these two groups of ahadith together? Edited by myahya - 21 January 2009 at 8:26am
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Chrysalis Senior Member Joined: 25 November 2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 2031	Posted: 21 January 2009 at 9:25am
	Something cannot be wrong with the ahadith - because they are Sahih Ahadith, from Bukhari and Muslim - the highest authority known, and I am not about to 'argue' on the authenticity of the ahadith - since its a general muslim fact. One can start a seperate thread for that. While Islam was gradually bieng revealed, there were numerous practises of the Sahaba which were practised since pre-islamic times. Mutaah was one of them - No need to dwelve furthur, we all know that. Then, Prophet Muhammad gradually started to discourage and ban certain things. At the onset of Islam, the tone was used as a gentle reprimand, rather than a firm strict order. An example of which is Drinking. Before Allah banned Alcohol in the Qur'an, and before clear-cut ahadith, the Prophet prepared the masses gently - by saying things such as 'Dont go near prayer when drunk'. . . etc. Then, after the muslims got used to the commands, it was later made final and clear-cut. A muslim now, cannot pick up that particular saying of the Prophet (dont pray when drunk) and say, that this hadith suggests its ok to drink, as long as we dont pray drunk. My view is, (and I say my view, because I am admitting it is prone to error, hence open to any corrections) that in one hadith, Prophet Muhammad forbade it himself, just like when he forbade prayer when drunk . . . . it was a transitional hadith to set a mood, that would discourage Mutaah. However, people still practised it one or two occasions, and the Prophet let it happen - because he was afraid that some muslims of weak imaan may be shaken. I will post that part later. I noticed that in the other hadith, Prophet Muhammad said "0 people, I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women, but Allah has forbidden it (now) until the Day of Resurrection" . In this hadith he says, "Allah has forbidden it "- which means, before this hadith, Allah had not sent down a clear-cut order . . . which is why Prophet Muhammad allowed it on exceptional circumstances. But after Allah sent down a clear-cut order - even Prophet Muhammad did not allow it ever again.
	"O Lord, forgive me, my parents and Muslims in the Hereafter. O Lord, show mercy on them as they showed mercy to me when I was young."
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