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Islamic INTRAfaith Dialogue
 IslamiCity Forum - Islamic Discussion Forum : Religion - Islam : Islamic INTRAfaith Dialogue
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abosait
 
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bullet Posted: 22 December 2008 at 4:47am

 

Originally posted by Sign*Reader

................His number of wives is put at 22[5] though never more than three or four simultaneously.
On what grounds do you object to that?

No Muslim has any right to consider as unlawful whatever Allah and his Prophet Sallallahu alaihi wasallam have declared as lawful. 
 
Nor has any Muslim any right to declare as halal whatever has been declared Haram by Allah and his Prophet Sallallahu alaihi wasallam.
 
Al-Ma'idah (The Table Spread) 5:87
يَا أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُواْ لاَ تُحَرِّمُواْ طَيِّبَاتِ مَا أَحَلَّ اللّهُ لَكُمْ وَلاَ تَعْتَدُواْ إِنَّ اللّهَ لاَ يُحِبُّ الْمُعْتَدِينَ (5:87)

O ye who believe! make not unlawful the good things which Allah hath made lawful for you, but commit no excess: for Allah loveth not those given to excess.
4:3 An-Nisa (The Women)

وَإِنْ خِفْتُمْ أَلاَّ تُقْسِطُواْ فِي الْيَتَامَى فَانكِحُواْ مَا طَابَ لَكُم مِّنَ النِّسَاء مَثْنَى وَثُلاَثَ وَرُبَاعَ فَإِنْ خِفْتُمْ أَلاَّ تَعْدِلُواْ فَوَاحِدَةً أَوْ مَا مَلَكَتْ أَيْمَانُكُمْ ذَلِكَ أَدْنَى أَلاَّ تَعُولُواْ (4:3)

If ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with the orphans, marry women of your choice, Two or three or four; but if ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly (with them), then only one, or (a captive) that your right hands possess, that will be more suitable, to prevent you from doing injustice.


Edited by abosait - 26 December 2008 at 2:16am
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sabah08
 
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bullet Posted: 27 December 2008 at 7:16pm
 
Also, I still do not understand, why you think Qur'an allows Mutaah? Kindly explain.
  
 
Even though the Shi'a are a minority of Muslims worldwide, they are the majority of the population in Iran and Iraq.  In this light, the legality of mut`a represents the majority of Muslims in these two large, geopolitically important areas in the Middle East.
 
The Shi`a and some Sunni ulama attest that sura 4:24 talks about temporary marriage.

And for those whom you enjoy, (istamta`) give them their appointed wages as due. There is no sin in what you do by mutual agreement.

istamta` - to seek, enjoy, obtain pleasure from, hence mut`a - marriage of pleasure/ temporary marriage  

Maybe it's not a question of 'playing' with words as much as it is a reflection of two differing interpretations that are both valid?... 


Edited by sabah08 - 27 December 2008 at 8:07pm
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bullet Posted: 27 December 2008 at 7:24pm
 abosait Posted: 13 December 2008 at 6:15am
 
Changinging the name of the same act does not make it legal.
 
abosait,
Structurally temporary marriage has similarities to prostitution, but ideologically, mut`a serves as the answer to illicit sexual encounters.
 
One must be cautious when saying mut`a is prostitution, for it is well agreed by Sunnis and Shi'is that the Prophet allowed mut`a.
 
 
 


Edited by sabah08 - 27 December 2008 at 8:12pm
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bullet Posted: 27 December 2008 at 7:38pm
Chrysalis  Posted: 14 December 2008 at 8:32am
 
Prostitution : paying a woman for her services/company for an agreed upon (i.e. temporary) length of time, for sexual satisfaction.
 
Mutaah: paying a woman for her services/company for an agreed upon (i.e. temporary) length of time, for sexual satisfaction.
 
Zina is also the same, for the same purposes, except that no financial transaction takes place. . .
 
How can one be termed better than another?
 
Pl correct me if I am wrong.
 
 
If one links mut`a to prostitution because of an exchange of money, doesn't an exchange of money occur in permanent marriage? In permanent marriage, doesn't a man give a wife money in exchange for sexual intercourse with her?
 
If one likens mut`a to prostitution because of the time period involved; a mut`a union does not have to be fleeting - it can last up to 99 years. That would be as long, if not longer, than a permanent marriage.
 
Zina is consensual sexual relations between a man and a woman not married to each other.
 
Also, a mut`a contract can be non-sexual; a man and a woman can agree to spend time with each other without having sexual intercourse.  


Edited by sabah08 - 27 December 2008 at 8:10pm
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bullet Posted: 27 December 2008 at 7:50pm
Originally posted by Abu_Hadi

Holy Quran allows mutaa' in Surat 4 Ayat 24.
It was  allowed by Rasoulallah(p.b.u.h)
It was made haram by Umar Al Khattab, who had no right to make something haram which was allowed by Quran and Rasoulallah(p.b.u.h)
 
Mutaa' is not prostitution. It is marriage.
The iddah applies to mutaa'. If a prostitute did halal mutaa', she would have to wait 3 months between each new client. Now that would be a pretty poor prostitute, lol.
 
 
The confusion of linking mut`a with prostitution probably stems from their structural similarities - exchange of money, fixed time; however, ideologically, mut`a serves as a divine way of channeling desire and promotes the good of Islamic cultures and societies.
 
The idda for mut`a is not as long as a permanent wife; so, it's roughly two months. 
 
One major distinguishing factor between mut`a and prostitution is the legitimacy of children born from a mut`a union.
 
In fact, spouses can even insert an inheritance stipulation in the mut`a contract.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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bullet Posted: 27 December 2008 at 8:37pm
Sign*Reader Posted: 12 December 2008 at 8:15pm
 
"I think it was mostly got practiced in the areas conquered from the Sassanid  cuz the battles really decimated a large portion of the Sassanid men population! When Caliph Umar realized that it was becoming a threat to the fabric of standing force he put an end to it....he cut short the rotation period and took the seperation from wife excuse out of the picture!
But what Umar did, the Shiit had to oppose it ! Any wonder they celebrate his assassination in Iran and LuLu is has a shrine ! "
 
 
 
The Prophet allowed mut'a during times of trouble or hardships when women were scarce and during times of war.
 
According to this shahih hadith:
 
Abd Allah b. Masud said: We were raiding with the Messenger of God and we did not have women.  And we said: Should we not castrate ourselves Muhammad forbade us from doing so and then he permitted us to marry a woman for a piece of cloth for an appointed time.
 
As men were apart from their wives, mut`a served as a means of fulfilling male sexual desire during battle. If it was a threat to the strategic outcome of war, why would the Prophet allow mut`a but also recommend mut`a?
 
According to your analysis Umar banned it, so why would a person (even though a sahaba and one of the rightly guided caliphs) have any right to abrogate the sahih hadith of the Prophet?  Besides, at the time of Umar, one cannot really speak of a separate Shi'i group. Of course there was a small group of Ali's supporters at Umar's time, but the true Shi'i identity did not crystallize until later, as a result of the battle of Karbala 680 CE.
 
 


Edited by sabah08 - 27 December 2008 at 8:39pm
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bullet Posted: 29 December 2008 at 4:35am
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bullet Posted: 01 January 2009 at 9:28am
 
Myahya , I think what BMZ was saying was that the nature of the Mutaah is such - that no brother would like his sister to be in a 'temporary' marriage. Meaning, if Mutaah was so nice and gave respect to a woman, and was that good - no brother would feel wierd about his sister entering a 'temporary' intimacy contract with a man.
 
and that men who defend Mutaah so much, would never choose that option for a sister or a daughter.
 
It has nothing to do with one needing a 'yes' or permission from the woman's brother to wed a woman. That is not the case in Islam - and I dont think that is what BMZ meant.
 


Edited by Chrysalis - 01 January 2009 at 9:31am
"O Lord, forgive me, my parents and Muslims in the Hereafter. O Lord, show mercy on them as they showed mercy to me when I was young."
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