IslamiCity Forum - Islamic Discussion Forum: temporary marriage/mut`a

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Originally posted by abosait

Originally posted by sabah08

Abdullah Ibn 'Abbas (r.a.a.) said: "Temporary marriage was at the beginning of Islam. A man comes by a town where he has no acquaintances, so he marries for a fixed time depending on his stay in the town, the woman looks after his provisions and prepares his food, until the verse was revealed: "Except to your wives or what your right hands possess." Ibn 'Abbas explained that any relationship beyond this is forbidden. [narrated by Tirmizy] 
As temporary marriage was a custom amongst Arabs in the days of ignorance, it would not have been wise to forbid it except gradually, as is the manner of Islam in removing pre-Islamic customs which were contrary to the interests of people. 
It is well established that temporary marriage does not agree with the interests of people because it causes loss to the offspring, uses women for fulfillment of the lusts of men, and belittles the value of a woman whom Allah has honored. So temporary marriage was forbidden.  

What would have been contrary to the interest of the people banning temporary marriage at the start of Islam? Why should mut`a be banned gradually; weren't certain pre-Islamic marriage and inheritance laws changed/banned completely at the beginning of Islam? 

Shi'a quote other tafsirs such as al-Khui which point to the Prophet allowing mut`a and Umar banning it.    Al-Tusi discusses how the word istamtia in 4:24  refers to a marriage of a temporary contract,  hence mut`a.   

Children born form a mut`a contract are legitimate and they inherit from their parents. (1/2 the amount from their father than any children born in a permanent marriage and same amount from mother as permanent marriage children) 

As no witnesses or guardians are needed, a woman contracts a mut`a marriage independently; mut'a marriages are for the fulfillment of female sexual desire as well.  Why would the Prophet allow a practice that belittles women?

Author	Message
sabah08 Member. Joined: 27 October 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 11	Posted: 11 December 2008 at 8:27pm
	*Originally posted by abosait* *Originally posted by sabah08* Abdullah Ibn 'Abbas (r.a.a.) said: "Temporary marriage was at the beginning of Islam. A man comes by a town where he has no acquaintances, so he marries for a fixed time depending on his stay in the town, the woman looks after his provisions and prepares his food, until the verse was revealed: "Except to your wives or what your right hands possess." Ibn 'Abbas explained that any relationship beyond this is forbidden. [narrated by Tirmizy] As temporary marriage was a custom amongst Arabs in the days of ignorance, it would not have been wise to forbid it except gradually, as is the manner of Islam in removing pre-Islamic customs which were contrary to the interests of people. It is well established that temporary marriage does not agree with the interests of people because it causes loss to the offspring, uses women for fulfillment of the lusts of men, and belittles the value of a woman whom Allah has honored. So temporary marriage was forbidden. What would have been contrary to the interest of the people banning temporary marriage at the start of Islam? Why should mut`a be banned gradually; weren't certain pre-Islamic marriage and inheritance laws changed/banned completely at the beginning of Islam? Shi'a quote other tafsirs such as al-Khui which point to the Prophet allowing mut`a and Umar banning it. Al-Tusi discusses how the word istamtia in 4:24 refers to a marriage of a temporary contract, hence mut`a. Children born form a mut`a contract are legitimate and they inherit from their parents. (1/2 the amount from their father than any children born in a permanent marriage and same amount from mother as permanent marriage children) As no witnesses or guardians are needed, a woman contracts a mut`a marriage independently; mut'a marriages are for the fulfillment of female sexual desire as well. Why would the Prophet allow a practice that belittles women?
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sabah08 Member. Joined: 27 October 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 11	Posted: 11 December 2008 at 8:36pm
	*Originally posted by Chrysalis* Temporary Marriage seems to me a 'legalised' form of prostitution . . . According to Shi'i ulama, temporary marriage is the answer in preventing prostitution. If sura 4:24 legitimizes mut'a and the Prophet allowed it, then it is a religiously and legally permissible way for a man and woman to fulfill sexual desire. In this light, mut'a would be the answer to prevent zina and prostitution.
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sabah08 Member. Joined: 27 October 2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 11	Posted: 11 December 2008 at 8:42pm
	*Originally posted by abosait* *Originally posted by Chrysalis* Temporary Marriage seems to me a 'legalised' form of prostitution . . . No forbidden act can have a "legalised" form. Temporary marriage was prevalant in Arabia in the early days of Islam until a ban was imposed on that. According to Shi'i Islam, mut`a is not forbidden. How could Umar have the right to ban a practice legitimated by the Qur'an and allowed by the Prophet? Can hadith abrogate the Qur'an?
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Sign*Reader Senior Member Joined: 02 November 2005 Online Status: Offline Posts: 3352	Posted: 12 December 2008 at 8:15pm
	*Originally posted by sabah08* *Originally posted by abosait* *Originally posted by Chrysalis* Temporary Marriage seems to me a 'legalised' form of prostitution . . . No forbidden act can have a "legalised" form. Temporary marriage was prevalant in Arabia in the early days of Islam until a ban was imposed on that. According to Shi'i Islam, mut`a is not forbidden. How could Umar have the right to ban a practice legitimated by the Qur'an and allowed by the Prophet? Can hadith abrogate the Qur'an? If you want to do a Muta who is stopping you? Shiism is a parallel sect created by the Jew Hasan bin sabah; Let me show you what fitna have they started at Karbala: Arafah Day observed at Husseini shrine A hadith, or a saying, of Prophet Muhammad (peace of Allah be on him and his pure progeny) goes that Allah certainly looks at the visitors of Hussein in Karbala before He looks at His (Allah’s) visitors in Mt. Arafat. ( How preposterous) You can click on before to see more of this on their site Arafah day........ The rule of thumb in marriage is that you should be able to do anywhere and not get in hot water! You can do muta easily say in Iraq,Iran, or some other ME countries but you move here in the US and some one reports you then you will end up in the big house! And that won't be any fun would it? I think it was mostly got practiced in the areas conquered from the Sassanid cuz the battles really decimated a large portion of the Sassanid men population! When Caliph Umar realized that it was becoming a threat to the fabric of standing force he put an end to it....he cut short the rotation period and took the seperation from wife excuse out of the picture! But what Umar did, the Shiit had to oppose it ! Any wonder they celebrate his assassination in Iran and LuLu is has a shrine ! Edited by Sign*Reader - 12 December 2008 at 8:19pm
	Kismet Domino: Faith/Courage/Liberty/Abundance/Selfishness/Immorality/Apathy/Bondage or extinction.
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abosait Senior Member Joined: 05 November 2008 Location: India Online Status: Offline Posts: 375	Posted: 13 December 2008 at 6:15am
	*Originally posted by sabah08* .......................mut'a would be the answer to prevent zina and prostitution. Changinging the name of the same act does not make it legal.
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Chrysalis Senior Member Joined: 25 November 2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 2030	Posted: 14 December 2008 at 8:19am
	*Originally posted by sabah08* According to Shi'i ulama, temporary marriage is the answer in preventing prostitution. The first part says it all, (in bold) i.e. it is the opinion of a fraction of 'muslims' . . . does not mean it is Islam's stance as well. Just because they claim such a thing, does not necessarily make it true. Once Prophet Muhammad banned a certain practise, it is Haraam for muslims and not to be acted out. If sura 4:24 legitimizes mut'a and the Prophet allowed it, then it is a religiously and legally permissible way for a man and woman to fulfill sexual desire. In this light, mut'a would be the answer to prevent zina and prostitution. Surah 4:24 talks about regular, normal 'Marriage' , it does not talk about Mutaah. Heres the translation for other readers' benefit: "And whoever among you cannot (find) the means to marry free, believing women, then (he may marry) from those whom your right hands possess of believing slave girls. And Allah is most knowing about your faith. You (believers) are of one another. So marry them with the permission of thier people and give them their due compensation to what is acceptable.[They should be] chaste, neither [of] those who commit inlawful intercourse randomly nor those who take [secret] lovers. But once they are sheltered in marriage, if they should commit adultery, then for them is half the punishment for free [unmarried] women. This [allowance] is for him among you who fears sin, but to be patient is better for you. And Allah is Forgiving and Merciful." - 4:24 One cannot play with words and say that when Allah talked about Marriage here, He was referring to a 'temporary' marriage as well. . . Allah makes His commandments clear. In the very next verse, Allah says : "Allah wants to make clear to you [the lawful from the unlawful] and guide you to the [good] practices of those before you and to accept your repentance. And Allah is Knowing and Wise" - 4:25 . . . . which means, had a 'temporary' marriage been permissable, Allah would have made it clear. The Prophet clearly banned the practise, which means it is Haraam, and not permissable. Edited by Chrysalis - 14 December 2008 at 8:21am
	"O Lord, forgive me, my parents and Muslims in the Hereafter. O Lord, show mercy on them as they showed mercy to me when I was young."
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Chrysalis Senior Member Joined: 25 November 2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 2030	Posted: 14 December 2008 at 8:26am
	Can hadith abrogate the Qur'an? No it cannot. Sahih Hadith and Qur'an are complementary to each other, and one needs to be referred to, in order to understand the other better. Also, I still do not understand, why you think Qur'an allows Mutaah? Kindly explain. Regards,
	"O Lord, forgive me, my parents and Muslims in the Hereafter. O Lord, show mercy on them as they showed mercy to me when I was young."
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Chrysalis Senior Member Joined: 25 November 2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 2030	Posted: 14 December 2008 at 8:32am
	*Originally posted by sabah08* .......................mut'a would be the answer to prevent zina and prostitution. Prostitution : paying a woman for her services/company for an agreed upon (i.e. temporary) length of time, for sexual satisfaction. Mutaah: paying a woman for her services/company for an agreed upon (i.e. temporary) length of time, for sexual satisfaction. Zina is also the same, for the same purposes, except that no financial transaction takes place. . . How can one be termed better than another? Pl correct me if I am wrong.
	"O Lord, forgive me, my parents and Muslims in the Hereafter. O Lord, show mercy on them as they showed mercy to me when I was young."
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